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Isaiah 9
#1
If what is being said here is true, how can that not leave a big question mark?

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#2
He exaggerates the mistranslation. on 1:00 he says all those verbs are in the past tense.
However, classical hebrew does not have a past tense.
See: Blueletterbible
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#3
Just wait 50 years or so and we'll see.
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#4
(06-15-2023, 09:33 AM)ctjacobs Wrote: He exaggerates the mistranslation. on 1:00 he says all those verbs are in the past tense.
However, classical hebrew does not have a past tense.
See: Blueletterbible

He explained it is a perfect tense.

What about all of the other places in the Hebrew bible where the same words are used and they are translated in the "past tense"?

What about the connection to King Hezekiah and what his name is translated to?

It's not just about the tense.

Why don't you make a comment on Youtube and see what the replies may be?

Blueletterbible is a Christian source. While they might provide some insight, I'll stick with the Jewish sources who speak the language the Hebrew bible was written in.

This will explain it in fine detail - https://uriyosef.files.wordpress.com/202...sa9_56.pdf

And here is another source which confirm what Rabbi Singer said -

https://www.ancient-hebrew.org/roots-wor...-verbs.htm

Tense

There are four tenses in Hebrew verbs, perfect, imperfect, participle and imperative. In the English language the verb tenses are related to time; past, present and future, while the Hebrew verbs are all related to action. The perfect tense is a completed action and in most cases is related to the English past tense (he cut). The imperfect tense is an incomplete action and is closely related to the English present and future tenses (he cuts or he will cut).

When a Hebrew verb is prefixed with the letter vav it means "and," but it also reverses the tense of the verb. For example, the verb אמר (amar) means "he said," and is in the perfect tense, but when it is written as ואמר (v'amar) it means "and he will say."
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#5
(06-15-2023, 11:15 AM)Blue Bird Wrote: Just wait 50 years or so and we'll see.

Hello Blue Bird.

What will happen in 50 yeas or so?
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#6
I suppose we'll be dead in 50 years or so. Then we'll see whether what the Christian Bible claims is true or not.
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#7
"Why don't you make a comment on Youtube and see what the replies may be?"
Good idea! I have done this now!
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#8
(06-15-2023, 12:11 PM)Blue Bird Wrote: I suppose we'll be dead in 50 years or so. Then we'll see whether what the Christian Bible claims is true or not.

Yes, we'll have to wait and see.

Of course we could also reverse it to say "Then we'll see whether what the Hebrew Bible claims is true or not."

But I realize you believe the claims in both are the same.
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#9
(06-15-2023, 12:13 PM)ctjacobs Wrote: "Why don't you make a comment on Youtube and see what the replies may be?"
Good idea! I have done this now!

Not sure if you'll receive any replies, but it's worth a shot.

Did you read what I wrote in my last post?

It goes into more detail regarding the "past" tense.
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#10
(06-15-2023, 01:36 PM)searchinmyroots Wrote:
(06-15-2023, 12:13 PM)ctjacobs Wrote: "Why don't you make a comment on Youtube and see what the replies may be?"
Good idea! I have done this now!

Not sure if you'll receive any replies, but it's worth a shot.

Did you read what I wrote in my last post?

It goes into more detail regarding the "past" tense.

Somehow my youtube reaction disappeared ...

I did read your last post, interesting.

I guess I should now try to find an atheistic classical Hebrew grammar  Smile

BTW about "I'll stick with the Jewish sources who speak the language the Hebrew bible was written in." I don't expect classical Hebrew be their native tongue either. And modern Hebrew is different, that does have past/present/future just like western languages. 
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